@(*steve*) hope you could join!
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Okay, consider it to be a copper square that is 20 cm wide, 0.4cm thick, 20 cm long. Its resistance is about 4.2x10^-5 Ω, inductance : 56 nH , magnetic field is a 0.5T uniform field from an electromagnet.
Voltage should be: 0.0000042Ω x 1000A = 0.0042VoltsDC. Imagine the magnetic field changing contniously(however you would like to imagine it going on/off or rotating next to conductor). However, the change is massive. delta(BA)/delta(t) = 0.5Tx0.4m^2/0.100s = -2VDC induced back-emf.
What is the factor of power jump here? From 0.0042VDC x 1000A = 4.2W to what...?
I hope this is a reasonable example, if you need to please adjust it! for frequency I dont know why it's needed since it's a DC circuit?
Its not a project at all...an experiment to prove the possibility of maintaining the same current on a conductor, without exhausting enormous power.
I self-teach myself electronics and tropics in electrical engineering on my own free time(oh and Physics!), and really tend to think of abstract experiments!
Which teaches me a lot of things, and sometimes conceptualize more.
But you haven't given me your opinion about the scale of power, and how "much" is needed to possibly maintain the same current with a large induced-back emf to a circuit that has low resistance?
V = IR, so current is 1kA and resistance is 4.2x10^-5Ω that gives 0.0042VDC
Now the power needed: P = I2R = 1,000,000x0.000045Ω= 4.2W but that's not including the back-emf induced by the magnetic field that is 2V so we actually need 2V + 0.0042V = 2.0042VDC to maintain the current, and by ohms law we can predict the power to be: Vtot^2 / R = 2.0042/0.0000042 = 956385W that's a huge jump in power due to the low resistance to maintain the same current when back-emf is opposing the applied voltage.
Why is there a back EMF? Is this in a motor? (You understand that back-EMF applies to motors?) Or do you mean counter EMF?
Note in particular, this section:
The term Back electromotive force, or just Back-EMF, is most commonly used to refer to the voltage that occurs in electric motors where there is relative motion between the armature of the motor and the magnetic field from the motor's field magnets, or windings. From Faraday's law, the voltage is proportional to the magnetic field, length of wire in the armature, and the speed of the motor. This effect is not due to the motor's inductance and is a completely separate effect.In this case back EMF is as a result of a changing magnetic field causing an induced voltage.
In a motor using a rotating armature in the presence of a magnetic flux, the conductors cut the magnetic field lines as they rotate. This produces a voltage in the coil; the motor is acting like a generator (Faraday's law of induction.) at the same time it is a motor. This voltage opposes the original applied voltage; therefore, it is called "back-electromotive force" (by Lenz's law). With a lower overall voltage across the armature, the current flowing into the motor is reduced.[4] One practical application is to use this phenomenon to indirectly measure motor speed and position since the Back-EMF is proportional to the armature rotational speed.
If you have a constant current you also have a constant magnetic field resulting from it.
Well, I have a fixed conductor next to a magnetic field that goes 0 to 0.5Tesla in 10 milliseconds, current should be constant(the goal when back-emf is induced).Do you have a varying current or a varying magnetic field, or motion through a constant magnetic field, or some combination of these? If so, where are these from, and how do you state them as part of your problem specification?
Hm, this got me to scratch my head a bit... what I'm doing is trying to calculate the required power when back-emf is induced in my example in the previous post, but... the idea is really trying to maintain the same current, even if there is counter-emf without really using a lot of power.Or do you have a resistance of 4.2E-5Ω (let's just call it "R") which produces a voltage drop when a current of 1000A (let's just call that "I") which exceeds I*R? So are you trying to explain an experimental anomaly, or are you just asserting that V = I*R does not hold in your particular DC circuit without any actual evidence or theoretical prediction?
As far as I can tell, your 2V is a magic number that is obtained without any practical or theoretical justification. I can replace it with 1V, or 6V, or 1.4142136V without any need to justify it (it seems) in your statement. Why do we need this extra voltage? Mr Ohm says we don't.
Well they all are the same thing, it just induced voltage the opposes you supply voltage.
Well, consider it as counter-emf or -V. Yes c-emf is induced due to the conductor being next to a magnetic field.
In my example specifically, the magnetic field is 0.5Tesla and it goes from 0-0.5T in 10 milliseconds, so that is the induced voltage would be equal to Faraday's law of induction.
Hm, this got me to scratch my head a bit... what I'm doing is trying to calculate the required power when back-emf is induced in my example in the previous post, but... the idea is really trying to maintain the same current, even if there is counter-emf without really using a lot of power.
E = - d(BA)/dt = - (0.5x0.04)/0.010 = -2V opposing the supplied voltage. We don't need it, but based on Faraday's law of induction: If there is change in flux over a change in time, there is induced emf, and based on Lenz law, the "emf" opposes the circuit's voltage = -V.