Why nothing meaningful? I didn't show the signal inputs on pin 2 of
each amp, assuming it would be implied. It is just a 2Vpp audio
frequency sinewave to both.
Where to start... The input opamp is a fairly common configuration to
split the rails for the bias point of subsequent opamps, though often
it's set up as a low-pass filter to reduce wideband noise. R3 does
nothing good, and limits U1's output current (not a good thing).
U2 and U3 use U1's output for their positive and negative rail,
respectively. This means the output of the upper rail cannot go below
this and the lower cannot go above this. Therefore, you *must* have a
DC current in the output. This isn't generally a good thing for an
audio circuit. I guess there may be reasons for this but you haven't
said what you're trying to do so this whole discussion is pretty
silly.
The U3 is referenced to the negative rail so its output can't go below
that. IOW, if your input is a sine wave with 0V DC bias it's going to
clip. Ditto U2 and its negative rail (the output of U1). Both are
going to clip on the negative half cycle. Even if there is a DC bias
on the input signal, there is no DC bias where neither opamp is
clipping.
Hence the outputs are identical, but with a DC offset from each other
governed by the load resistance.
Nope. At least one is always driven into the rails. Even if this were
the case, why would you want such a thing? One opamp can do this,
BTW. Just sum in a DC voltage.
Several experts here have said there is a problem with the circuit,
but I would like to understand exactly why. It's an experiment, not a
hi-fi system.
If it's an experiment why ask here? Why not see for yourself that it
does nothing good? If you're trying to accomplish something specific,
give the complete picture and people will be glad to help (though it's
probably better over in .basics).