The article referenced states that even though the wavelength changes,
the frequency does not. How is this possible?
Can anyone provide an example using the figures in my OP?
The very simplest definition of refractive index is
n = <speed of light in vacuum>/<speed of light in material>
Basically you only have to consider continuity of the wave E field at
the surface boundary to see how the only possible solution when its
speed slows down is for the wavelength to shorten proportionately.
So wavelength in refractive media = lambda_vacuum/n
It is left as an exercise for the reader to prove this.
There is actually a tiny refractive index of air vs vacuum, but I cannot
be bothered to look up what it is at 900MHz.
So your concrete number example is 15.7/1.3 = 12.077cm
There is a subtle distinction between phase velocity of the wave crests
and group velocity of a signal travelling in a dispersive medium like a
waveguide or edge of a sharp spectral line which is usually the
fundamental misunderstanding of physics at the root of any claims for
FTL signalling by electronics engineers.
Interesting fact:
Minor corrections for imperfect vacuum in historic experiments used to
measure the speed of light in a vacuum have been responsible for
systematic errors that at one point far exceeded the error bars.
Plotting contemporaneous speed of light with error bars against time is
very informative - basically every subsequent experimenter that refined
this method reproduced the original (very famous) experimenters error
exactly. It was only when a new even more accurate technique came along
that the discrepancy was observed and the systematic error corrected.
One of the Relativity texts of the 1970's had this plot in as a salutary
lesson about assuming that famous experimentalists were infallible and
measurement errors free from systematic effects.
(actually if anyone knows of an online retailer with the original book I
would love to obtain a copy - sadly I can't recall the title)