W
Walter Harley
Please help me as I try to better understand MOSFETs.
I think that the physical construction of power MOSFETs is such that the
drain and source are approximately symmetric: so, electrically speaking
there's not a whole lot of difference between the drain and the source.
But, I see that Vgs(max) << Vds(max). For instance, a 500V MOSFET might
have Vgs(max) of 30V.
Now, suppose I take a MOSFET and I put a 400V supply on its drain, a 1k load
to ground on its source, and I ground the gate. The MOSFET will be "off"
and no current will flow. Vgs = 0V; Vds = 400V. But, the voltage from gate
to drain is -400V.
So how come it can stand 400V from gate to drain, when a tenth of that from
gate to source would have fried it? In at least that regard, the drain
seems very different from the source.
Is one of my assumptions wrong, or am I just not understanding properly?
I think that the physical construction of power MOSFETs is such that the
drain and source are approximately symmetric: so, electrically speaking
there's not a whole lot of difference between the drain and the source.
But, I see that Vgs(max) << Vds(max). For instance, a 500V MOSFET might
have Vgs(max) of 30V.
Now, suppose I take a MOSFET and I put a 400V supply on its drain, a 1k load
to ground on its source, and I ground the gate. The MOSFET will be "off"
and no current will flow. Vgs = 0V; Vds = 400V. But, the voltage from gate
to drain is -400V.
So how come it can stand 400V from gate to drain, when a tenth of that from
gate to source would have fried it? In at least that regard, the drain
seems very different from the source.
Is one of my assumptions wrong, or am I just not understanding properly?