I see the term bootstrapping, used when the designer wants a high
impedance and usually low capacitance. I know it involves feedback
but that's all I know.
I want to learn enough to build a bootstrapped input with 10Meg/2pf
impedance. Those are ballpark numbers, the end use would be used
to measure voltage on a high Q coil and NOT load it. Frequency 100khz up
to 2Mhz, but 10 Mhz adds more uses. (crystal radio stuff)
I would prefer a transistor circuit, that way I'll learn something,
but if there is an obvious IC circuit, I would like to know.
Mikek
Okay, mikek. Here's your bog standard bootstrapped
degenerative amplifier using a single BJT. I'll try and look
over it according to my poor hobbyist mind. I will assume you
understand much of it, already. But ask about stuff, where
I'm wrong about that.
+V
|
+V |
| \
| / Rc
| \
\ /
/ R1 |
\ |
/ +----Out
| C1 |
| || |
In----------------||--, |
| || | |
| R3 | |/c Q1
+----/\/\-----+--|
| |>e
| |
| C2 |
| || +------,
+---------||-------+ |
| || | |
| | \
| | / Ra
\ | \
/ R2 \ /
\ / Re |
/ \ |
| / |
| | --- Ca
| | ---
gnd | |
gnd |
gnd
(The simpler pieces missing from the above diagram are RS,
the source resistance, and RL, the load resistance. Ignore
them for now.)
As you probably know already, the biasing pair of resistors
R1 and R2 (in a non-bootstrapped case) are supposed to be
stiff enough for the task of keeping Q1's bias point from
moving much. It's common to read suggestions that the current
through R1+R2 should be about 1/10th of Iq, which is the
current through Rc in the quiescent state. Making them that
stiff also means that they load the source (by their shunting
effect.)
I liked the description I saw from Phil Hobbs. It's exactly
how I learned to see this, as well. He said that if you can
make the swing across a resistor (he said admittance) to be
identical (or as close as possible to that), that this means
no current is drawn.
Look at R3 for a moment. Assume that there is a DC bias
across R3 providing the necessary Q1 bias current for its
base. Now imagine keeping that DC bias, but asking yourself
what would happen if the biasing pair node can be made to
move up and down (AC wise) in exact lock-step with the base
of Q1. If that could happen then the bias current would
remain intact, but there would be no "change" in the current
with AC changes. So no AC loading. And the DC loading can be
increased because, although R1 and R2 still have their
Thevenin equivalent shunting effect, now you can add R3
straight away to that, so that the DC loading is much lighter
than before despite a stiff bias pair.
So more degrees of design freedom.
What C2 does is to implement that requirement that the
biasing pair node moves up and down in concert with Q1's
base. At AC, the emitter is "following" the base (with very
slightly less than 1 gain, Q1's alpha.) Assume the gain is 1
for now. If C2 is designed to be a 'short' at AC frequencies
of interest and if the emitter of Q1 is a good, low impedance
"source" of these AC changes (it is such a good source), then
C2 will bypass emitter fluctuations directly to the biasing
pair and it will do so at low impedance, easily driving the
biasing node up and down in concert with the base signal.
What's neat about this is that it uses an existing low
impedance replica of the input signal that is isolated
(mostly) from the input by the beta of Q1. And it uses it to
force the biasing pair node up and down in phase with the AC
signal. Since it is obvious from the circuit that Q1's base
itself is moving also up and down by the same amount (almost)
then it follows that the AC signal on both sides of R3 is the
same (almost.) So at AC signals, R3 "looks" like an infinite
impedance. And at DC, R3 greatly reduces the bypass loading.
Okay. So some analysis. Miller's theorem says that the
impedance between two nodes can be resolved out into two
different components: z/(1-k) and z*k/(k-1). In this case, k
is the voltage gain, k = Av = Vo/Vi, and R3 is z. Since we
are tapping off of the emitter, not the collector, Vo/Vi is
nearly 1. For example, if Av=.99 and R3=200k then the
effective resistance is 20M Ohm.
Full analysis is, of course, more algebra and work. But I
thought I'd just get this out there for you to get the main
point across. I'd use the term bootstrapping anytime this
particular kind of approach is being taken.
Jon