I have designed a 1:1 transformer that will be used in a low voltage
DC
C converter. I have tested the current at which the transformer
saturates by decreasing the frequency of the primary voltage while
keeping the secondary open loop.
I would like to calculate the theoretical value of the current at
which the transformer will saturate. I tried using the formula in
Flanagan's which relates Imax to Bmax and I then used the Bmax of
ferrites but that doesn't correspond to the current I measure on the
oscilloscope.
Also, please clarify the following for me since I find it very
confusing: is magnetizing inductance the same as primary inductance?
How do I correctly calculate magnetizing inductance?
DC
saturates by decreasing the frequency of the primary voltage while
keeping the secondary open loop.
I would like to calculate the theoretical value of the current at
which the transformer will saturate. I tried using the formula in
Flanagan's which relates Imax to Bmax and I then used the Bmax of
ferrites but that doesn't correspond to the current I measure on the
oscilloscope.
Also, please clarify the following for me since I find it very
confusing: is magnetizing inductance the same as primary inductance?
How do I correctly calculate magnetizing inductance?