Hello all, I have a Boolean algebra question I need help with...
This is the truth table and the Karnaugh map associated. I got this from:
http://www.ee.calpoly.edu/media/uploads/resources/KarnaughExplorer_1.html
Now, for my assigment I need to simplify it, and this is what I've done.
F=A’B’C’D’ + A’B’CD’ + A’BC’D’ + A’BC’D + A’BCD’ + A’BCD + ABC’D’
F=A’B’D’ (C’+C) + A’BC’ (D’+D) + A’BC (D’+D) + ABC’D’
F=A’B’D’ (1) + A’BC’ (1) + A’BC (1) + ABC’D’
F=A’B’D’ + A’BC’ + A’BC + ABC’D’
F=A’B (C’+C) + A’B’D’ + ABC’D’
F=A’B (1) + A’B’D’ + ABC’D’
F=A’B + A’B’D’ + ABC’D’
Other useful info:
' = NOT, therefore
A' = NOT(A)
My answer is different than the one on the website... Is this normal? Am I making a mistake here or not using the appropriate method? Does the Karnaugh Map simplify the function more effectively than the written method?
Thanks in advance, all input appreciated!
tommis15
This is the truth table and the Karnaugh map associated. I got this from:
http://www.ee.calpoly.edu/media/uploads/resources/KarnaughExplorer_1.html
Now, for my assigment I need to simplify it, and this is what I've done.
F=A’B’C’D’ + A’B’CD’ + A’BC’D’ + A’BC’D + A’BCD’ + A’BCD + ABC’D’
F=A’B’D’ (C’+C) + A’BC’ (D’+D) + A’BC (D’+D) + ABC’D’
F=A’B’D’ (1) + A’BC’ (1) + A’BC (1) + ABC’D’
F=A’B’D’ + A’BC’ + A’BC + ABC’D’
F=A’B (C’+C) + A’B’D’ + ABC’D’
F=A’B (1) + A’B’D’ + ABC’D’
F=A’B + A’B’D’ + ABC’D’
Other useful info:
' = NOT, therefore
A' = NOT(A)
My answer is different than the one on the website... Is this normal? Am I making a mistake here or not using the appropriate method? Does the Karnaugh Map simplify the function more effectively than the written method?
Thanks in advance, all input appreciated!
tommis15